bijane wrote:DukeTwicep wrote:OK so I think I understand the first part where he creates these properties that the Bible says he has, if you mean that by giving himself these properties he is starting to create a logic that will finally be ours?
The other part, where he lives without logic, I assume that is the one you didn't write about. So, how would that be? Can he add properties to himself and create us and create our laws of logic without first creating any logic for himself?
Or perhaps I misinterpreted you and you meant that what you wrote accounts for both cases. If he lives without logic, then he creates us, he gives us a perfect logic, and that perfect logic would be his, thus he cannot have lived without logic when he created us? And this means that if he first lived in a void, he must then have created logic for himself before creating our logic. That makes sense too.
Essentially, it's the latter; the points of the initial statement (perfect logic created for God, loves humanity, so gives them perfect logic...) still stand. if God lives without logic, why would humans be created with logic?
In standard form:
R1: God is omnipotent
R2: God existed before all else.
R3: God is able to create logic, or a lack thereof (linked to R1)
IC1: God created the initial logic by which God runs. (From R1, R3 and R2)
R4: God is perfect
IC2: The logic created is the perfect logic (from IC1 and R4)
R5: God loves humanity
R6: God created everything to do with humanity
IC3: God created humanity with a good system of logic (from R5 and R6)
R7: Perfection is very good.
C: God has given humanity God's own laws of logic (or lack thereof) (from IC3 and R7).
Ah, that's much more concise, thanks, that my brain can compute . I'll have to learn more about how arguments are built. IC is Indirect Conclusion I presume? And R is a premise?
About dobbies question. Does that change anything about the argument? If God didn't create those things, then who did? The Devil? But God created the Devil so he gave him the power to create it if the Devil did indeed create it. So God is indirectly responsible for confusion as he gave the Devil "free will" and, he must in some way have exposed the Devil to evil in some alluring way to make the Devil evil. I don't know if I'm going in the right way.